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PRMIA 8011 Exam covers a wide range of topics related to credit risk and counterparty risk, including credit analysis, credit ratings, credit derivatives, credit portfolio management, counterparty risk management, and more. The program provides professionals with a comprehensive understanding of the principles, tools, and techniques used in credit and counterparty risk management. 8011 Exam is designed to test the knowledge and skills of professionals in these areas, and those who pass the exam will receive the PRMIA CCRM Certificate.
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The Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam certification program aims to provide a structured approach to the credit risk management process, including the assessment of creditworthiness, the analysis of credit risk metrics, and the implementation of appropriate risk mitigation strategies. The program also covers counterparty risk management, which involves evaluating the risk associated with counterparties that have contractual obligations with a financial institution. Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam certification program is highly reputable in the finance sector and is recognized globally, making it highly sought-after by professionals who want to excel in their career.
PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q276-Q281):
NEW QUESTION # 276
Which of the following distributions is generally not used for frequency modeling for operational risk
- A. Gamma
- B. Binomial
- C. Poisson
- D. Negative binomial
Answer: A
Explanation:
Frequency modeling is performed using discrete distributions that have a positive integer as a resultant - this allows for the number of events per period of time to be modeled. Of the distributions listed above, Poisson, negative binomial and binomial can be used for modeling frequency distributions. The Poisson and negative binomial distributions are encountered the most in practice.
The gamma distribution is a continuous distribution and cannot be used for frequency modeling.
NEW QUESTION # 277
Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to the recent financial crisis of 2007-08?
- A. Counterparty risk was difficult to gauge as it was impossible to know who the counterparty's counterparties were
- B. Central banks had data on the interconnections between institutions, but poor understanding and analysis meant this data was never analyzed
- C. An intention to diversify from their core activities led all market participants to the same activities, which though appearing diversified at the bank's level, created a concentration risk at the systemic level
- D. The existence of central counterparties could have limited the damage caused by the financial crisis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Counterparty risk was difficult to gauge as it was impossible to know who the counterparty's counterparties were - this is true as the chain of financial transactions became excessively long with no central transparency of who owed who what. Bank A's credit depended upon the health of its counterparties, whose health in turn depended upon other counterparties. Thus Choice 'd' is a correct statement.
In an attempt to diversify, banks became more like each other - chasing yield, they piled into securitized products, and chasing diversification, they piled into different types of securitized products. The system as a whole became susceptible to small shocks in the assets underlying this vast edifice of structured products.
Therefore Choice 'a' represents a correct statement.
Choice 'c' does not represent a correct statement. Central banks had little data on the interconnections between institutions. They were aware of the large volumes of OTC transactions, but had no data to figure out who was connected to who, and who had what kind of exposures.
Choice 'b' represents a correct statement. Most transactions, other than exchange cleared futures trades (which were a tiny fraction of all trades) were cleared on a bilateral basis. The existence of central counterparties (CCPs) could have limited the impact of the crisis significantly as market participants would not have lost trust in each other, and the 'collateral damage' that was witnessed from a fall in housing prices, and thereby mortgage assets, would have been more contained.
NEW QUESTION # 278
CreditRisk+, the actuarial model for calculating portfolio credit risk, is based upon:
- A. the Poisson distribution
- B. the log-normal distribution
- C. the exponential distribution
- D. the normal distribution
Answer: A
Explanation:
CreditRisk+ treats default as a binary event, ignoring downgrade risk, capital structures of individual firms in the portfolio or the causes of default. It uses a single parameter,#or the mean default rate, and derives credit risk based upon the Poisson distribution. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 279
Under the standardized approach to calculating operational risk capital under Basel II, negative regulatory capital charges for any of the business units:
- A. Should be offset against positive capital charges from other business units
- B. Should be included after ignoring the negative sign
- C. Should be ignored completely
- D. Should be excluded from capital calculations
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to Basel II, in any given year, negative capital charges (resulting from negative gross income) in any business line may offset positive capital charges in other business lines without limit. Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 280
Which of the following best describes Altman's Z-score
- A. A numerical computation based upon accounting ratios
- B. A calculation of default probabilities
- C. A regression of probability of survival against a given set of factors
- D. A standardized z based upon the normal distribution
Answer: A
Explanation:
Choice 'c' correctly describes Altman's z-score. All other choices are incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 281
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